ewashington,

Grace unto you, and peace,
from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ.

Indeed, interesting aspects to this topic.

1Timothy 2:13-15 notes "Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety".

Romans 4:15 notes "where no law is, [there is] no transgression".

So, for the woman to be in the transgression (because of deception) there has to be a law to transgress; For 1John 3:4 notes "sin is the transgression of the law". So there had to be a law, long before the 10 in stone at Mt Sinai, and long before the 613 in ink in the Torah.

John 1:17 says: "the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ". Galatians 3:19 seems to note all other law was "added", and "because of transgressions".

When studied out, the law "given by Moses" seems to be the tree law in Genesis 2:17, which seems to be "the law" (singular) which Christ abolished in Ephesians 2:15, which is called "the law of (plural) commandments". When studied out Gen 2:16 vs 17 seem to be plural and contrary "commandments": every tree vs not every tree; which is allegorically grace vs law. So if mingled, Gen 2:16+17 make an oxymoron. So Christ refused "mingled" drink, and twice, as if from both sides of the cross.

So when the tree law in Gen 2:17 is abolished, then there is no transgression possible, also no condemnation, and no need to add more laws because of transgressions.

I hope that made some sense. I encourage people to study it out for themselves, in order to be persuaded how there is therefore now no condemnation, as noted in Rom 8:1.

The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ [be] with you all. Amen.