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Re: Is Logic a Law ?

Marek,

Grace unto you, and peace,
from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ,

You seem to have conflated the meaning of a "prescriptive" law or a law that "prescribes" (e.g., "Thou shalt not kill") with the meaning of a "descriptive" law or a law that "describes" (e.g., F = MA); for the former comprises those things which are violable or able to be violated (e.g., edicts, rules etc.) while the latter comprises those things which are inviolable or not able to be violable.

Now any "law" whatsoever that "prescribes" anything whatsoever (e.g., one of the Ten Commandments) is a law that is violable. However, the expression "You can't put on incorruption (grace),
till you first put off corruption (law)" does NOT "prescribe" anything whatsoever; for it is merely a saying which expresses a proposition that DESCRIBES a certain reality - namely, that is NOT possible for one to put on incorruption without firstly putting off corruption.

Thus, clearly, such an expression is actually a DESCRIPTION, even a proper subclass of those sorts of things which are subsumed under that class of things which are NOT violable.


The grace of our Lord Jesus (the) Christ (be) with you all. Amen.

Re: Is Logic a Law ?

Hello ewashington

I understand that there is difference between this laws. But both are laws :). That what I want to say. In fact F=MA is physical law, but it is also a law which bind us to something.

The question is if at the end it will be no law at all (I can not imagine it too :)) or maybe law you propose which prevents from falling into another law.