Mid-American Umpire Clinic Message Board
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| Author | Comment |
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Jason Blackburn
Jun 24, 08 - 12:11 PM |
Here's one to think about
This play didn't happen (to my knowledge), but was recently brought up at an umpire clinic for discussion. R1, # of outs doesn't matter. Batter hits a quick ground ball up the middle that is fielded by the SS who is about a step from 2nd base. When the ball is hit R1 starts towards 2nd base and he runs into 1B. The SS takes a step, touches 2nd base and throws to 1st for a double play. What's the call? |
Heath Kramer
Jun 24th, 2008 - 12:55 PM |
Is stepping on 2nd base considered making a play on the obstructed runner? If it is then you have dead ball situation and you have to put the runners on 1st and 2nd...right? My problem is - the rule says to put them at the bases they would have reached had there been no obstruction. Had there been no obstruction they'd both be in the dugout following the double play. But, you can't really reward the defense for having their first baseman step into the basepath knowing R1 would be heading to 2nd. It sucks, but I think you have to put the runners on 1st and 2nd. If stepping on 2nd is not considered making a play on R1, then I suppose you could put him on 2nd and have the BR called out. That's probably the call I like the best. But what do I know? I called a kid out for having half his foot on the plate.
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Jason Blackburn
Jun 24th, 2008 - 2:29 PM |
Yes, stepping on 2nd is making a play on R1. I'll let others kick the play around before I give you my thoughts on it. |
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Tony Snyder
Jul 14th, 2008 - 6:39 AM |
The obstruction was away from the ball. R1 would not have made it safely to 2nd anyway. Even though obstruction occured it does appear to have hindered or altered the play. I would have to say the double play stands. |
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Tony Snyder
Jul 15th, 2008 - 8:39 AM |
sorry, My last sentence in my previous reply had a very important word missing. It should have read "does not appear to have hindered..."
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